Ramp Rogue
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- Aug 19, 2002
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Would you please state whether you would prefer Date Of Hire Seniority or Classification Seniority? And your reasons for choosing one over the other. Thank You.
Where in the seniority line would the part-timers fall that work more hours weekly, than some full-timers? There are part-timers that do 8 hour doubles everyday. Should they automatically be ahead of full-timers?I would prefer something that accounts for hours of service.
Part-timers are scheduled about 20 hours a week, or about 1000 hours annually.
Full-timers are scheduled 40 hours a week, or 2000 annually.
Scenario A.
Assume I hired on in 1/1/2000 part-time, and upgraded to full-time 1/1/2005. Let's further assume it is now 1/1/2007. I would have worked a total of 9,000 hours.
Scenario B.
Now let's assume I hired on in 1/1/2000 part-time, upgraded to full-time in 1/1/2001, and it is now 1/1/2007. I now would have worked 13,000 hours - 69% more than in the first scenario.
Date of hire would give each scenario equal seniority.
Sorry, if you want to work part-time for many years, that is your business, but don't look for a windfall you didn't earn.
IMHO.
I will have to agree with the above post. I always felt that the amount of scheduled hours worked should be a deciding factor. Years ago, I worked with a few people who were P/T by choice for over 10 years, then took a F/T position. A few of them started with the company a few weeks prior to me, but over that 10 year period I worked twice as many scheduled hours as they did. With the system that we had in place, they were behind me in bidding classification. I never had any major issues with not going by DOH, and neither did any of my former coworkers.
Classification....not DOH.
My response to your thread 13 months ago on this subject, copied/pasted:
Here's the logic behind it:
FSA #1 was hired part time on 6-1-1981. He has a full time job as a school teacher, and took the job with the company for the flight benefits which he can use while on break from teaching.
FSA #2 was hired part time on 6-2-1981, and holds no other job. He took the job hoping it leads to full time, at which time he'll earn a decent living.
On 6-30-1981 the company is upgrading FSA to full time, at which time FSA #1 turns it down and FSA #2 takes the upgrade.
Over the next 10 years FSA #1 works 20 hours per week, repeatedly turns down full time, is able to hold weekends off after one year, holds daywork during the summer months (could hold it permanent if it wasn't for teaching), and get prime weeks for vacation.
During the same time frame FSA #2 works 40 hours per week, is able to get part of a weekend off after 10 years, can't touch daywork, and is forced to take his three weeks of vacation between January and March or October thru the second week of November.
The city these agents work in expands and FSA #1 sees that he can hold daywork, full time. He's now at the top of the payscale and realizes that he'd be better off quiting his teaching job and going full time at the airline, so he does.
Bid time is here and there is only 1 full time daywork line left. Who deserves it more? Who should get it? FSA #1 or FSA #2.
No question in my mind it should be FSA #2. FSA #1 deserves to have his service time cut in half, therefore we have classification date.
As far as I know, they did't lose any classification senoirity if they were involuntarily bumped down. I could be wrong, but recall a few that I worked with who were downgraded discussing this topic.I am not a ramp agent but I would like to know your thoughts on the P/Timers that were forced to P/T from F/T?
I am not a ramp agent but I would like to know your thoughts on the P/Timers that were forced to P/T from F/T?