jimntx said:
One of the lawsuits against the APFA and AA regarding the RPA is an attempt to avoid a "shop practice" precedent being set. It seems that there is a precedent in labor law that regardless of the law and regardless the stipulations of a contract, if a union allows the company to do something that violates the contract and does nothing to dispute such action, it becomes "the practice of the shop"--it is interpreted as an implicit acceptance of a contract modification. Not striking when the law allows can, in fact, constitute, acceptance of the new terms/practices. However, I don't know if the company has to go to court and have it officially declared "shop practice" or if it becomes that if the union tries to dispute the practice later.
(Got this all from a labor lawyer.)
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Well there is a little more to it than that. It could be easily argued that tolerating changes that are put in place by a judge during BK does not constitute acceptance of new terms.
There are a lot of "ifs" to shop practice, or "past practice". I disagree with the "regardless of the law" or "contract language claim". Normally clear written language is enforcable, certainly from the point in time that the issue is brought forward.
In other words lets say that the union or the company allowed things to go on due to certain conditions but then later decided to go back to what was written. They may not be able to go back and claim damages for what happened during the period prior to the point where they cite the language (where they allowed it to go on) but they certainly could demand that the language be adhered to henceforth.
For instance next week we have a fellow employees case being put before an arbitrator. The employee was fired for leaving early. It seems the company had two people from corporate security follow him home after leaving early on several occasions. When he was called in for a hearing by Corporate security he admitted that he left early. Reportedly, he said that he had been doing that for at least 15 years and even prior to that at Pan Am. Management was aware of it and condoned it. He did not think he was doing anything wrong because he considered himself to be a "teaam player".
Having been with the company for nearly 19 years I know he was telling the truth. I've worked three different stations, JFK, DCA and LGA, and this practice of allowing guys to leave early if they put out was common at all three. A few years back a FS clerk from BOS was reportedly drunk when he killed someone in a car wreck about an hour away from the airport while he was still on the clock, so its clearly not just a common practice with maintenance or the three stations that I worked at either.
Leaving early was just one of the "deals" that management used to sqeeze out more from the guys. Go over and above during the peak times when the company needs it and "I wont be looking for you" when it slows up.
Now can the union simply cite that this was a "shop practice"? Is this a slam dunk case? After all it was not something imposed by a judge under BK and it has gone on at least for the 19 years that I've been with the company, in fact, from the stories I've heard it has gone on far longer than that. Its doubtful that the company will admit that they explicitly told the guys they could leave early but clearly they knew.To try and say that the company was unaware of it is absurd.
In this case we have company regulations, written language, and we have the company allowing those regulations to be violated for many, many years with no real attempt at enforcement, in fact they used to even issue us multiple cards to be used for punching in and out. The ID we use for gaining entry is different than the one we use for clocking in and out, so despite its written rules the company has made efforts to make the practice of leaving early easier.
The company claimed that they only followed this particular individual because he was named in an anonymous letter, they said that they observed at least 60 others that were doing the same thing but they only went after this one employee.
Now I would say that the company's termination of this employee is unjust. Did he violate the rules? Yes, but they condoned it and they singled him out for different treatment simply because of an anonymous letter. Their failure to pursue the other 60 employees observed doing the same thing indicates disparate treatement.
Does the company have the right to put a stop to this very long standing practice? Yes, because the language is clear. Do they have the right to go back in time to penalize those who did this while it was tolerated-No, because the workers upheld their part of the deal by going above and beyond and the company tolerated it.
The fact is that the company easily could have put a stop to this by simply calling the worker into the office. His free admission to corporate security indicates that he did not feel that he was doing anything wrong, despite the rules because it was "past practice". If they had informed him of the letter and corrected his assumptions the employee would have corrected his actions. However if the employee said "look this has been 'shop practice' for at least twenty years and I'm not going to stop" then I would say that the employee was wrong, and if continued to leave that they could terminate him.
I would say that while past practice can be used as a defense for past actions that you cant use it to override written language in the future.