Charlie_Tuna
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- Sep 29, 2005
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I understand all unions had successor language in their contracts. Can I get some insight on what all the unions stances were/are on this language and how it would apply to them if at all. For some unions does the successor language not have any benefits for them anyway so its just a moot point?
Has the company ever asked any union to give up any and all rights under the successor language in any negotiations for transition agreements or has the company not ever worried about this language as they think they have structured the deal so as the unions wouldn't have a leg to stand on?
If the IAM won their arbitration , if it ever gets there, would it be precedent setting and/or retroactive to all other unions?
Has the company ever asked any union to give up any and all rights under the successor language in any negotiations for transition agreements or has the company not ever worried about this language as they think they have structured the deal so as the unions wouldn't have a leg to stand on?
If the IAM won their arbitration , if it ever gets there, would it be precedent setting and/or retroactive to all other unions?
